IATRA Questions with Answers

I started collecting IATRA questions from various sources (mainly forums and books), along with the answers I suppose to be correct from my knowledge. Mainly I do that for my own exam preparation, but probably it will help someone who is preparing too.

Air Law

Q: The operator, in respect to an aircraft, is:
A: Aircraft operator means a person who uses, causes to be used, or authorizes to be used an aircraft, with or without the right of legal control (as owner, lessee, or otherwise), for the purpose of air navigation including the piloting of aircraft, or on any part of the surface of an airport.

Q: Speed limitations
A: 250 KIAS below 10 000 MSL
200 KIAS within 10 nm of an aerodrome below 3000 AGL
310 KIAS shuttle climb

Q: Speed for holding patterns
A: <= 6000 feet: 200 KIAS
6000 feet < speed <= 14000 feet: 230 KIAS
> 14000 feet: 265 KIAS

Q: Speed change to notify ATC
A: 0.01M or 5% TAS

Q: Distance above terrain
A: Non-built-up areas: 500 feet
Built-up area: 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 2000 feet horizontal
National parks: 2000 feet

Q: What is the floor of the Arctic CA?
A: FL270
Note: SCA FL180, NCA FL230, ACA FL270, class B from 12500 up to but not including 18000.

Q: Low level airways
A: From 2 200 AGL up to and not including 18 000 MSL

Q: VFR in different airspaces.
A: See Canadian airspace.

Q: Forest fire zone
A: 5 NM, not less than 3000 feet AGL

Q: T-routes, Q-routes, L-routes
A: T-routes are controlled below 18 000 MSL
Q-routes are controlled at and above 18 000 MSL
L-routes are uncontrolled below 18 000 MSL
T-route width: 10 NM each side
MOCA protection: 6 NM each side of T-route

Q: When taking medication, what precautions should be taken for flying?
A: Consult your AME.

Q: Describe MEL.
A: A minimum equipment list (MEL) is a list which provides for the operation of aircraft, subject to specified conditions, with particular equipment inoperative (which is) prepared by an operator in conformity with, or more restrictive than, the MMEL established for the aircraft type.
Note: skybrary

Q: Protective breathing requirements for pressurized aircraft
A: 15-min supply at a pressure altitude of 8000 feet for each crew member

Q: Type rating, class rating privileges
A: TBD

Q: CPL privileges, ATPL privileges (one pilot airplane, two pilot airplane)
A: ATPL with Group 1: PIC for 2-pilot
ATPL with expired Group 1: CPL without PIC priv for 2-pilot
CPL with expired medical cat 1: PPL

Q: IATRA privileges
A: copilot on a 2-crew airplane

Q: Max allowable flight time for private operations
A: 1200h in 12 months
300h in 90 days
120h in 30 days
Single-pilot IFR 8 hours in 24 hours

Q: Max allowable flight time for commercial operations
A: 1000h in 365 days
300h in 90 days
112h in 28 days
Single-pilot IFR 8 hours in 24 hours

Q: Flight duty time for private operators
A: 14 hours in 24 hours
15 hours in 24 hours if total flight duty period in previous 30 days does not exceed 70 hours OR the rest period before the flight is at least 24 hours

Q: Flight duty time for commercial operators
A: max 9 to 13 hours flight duty period, and then a lot of ugly tables

Q: Flight duty when on reserve
A: notice of more than 1 hour

Q: IFR destination and alternate requirements
A: TBD

Q: Period after consuming alcohol
A: 12 hours; 24 hours after excessive drinking

Q: IFR fuel requirements
A: commuter, propeller-driven: destination, alternate and 45 min, as well as diversion and hold
commuter, turbojet: destination, alternate and 30 min, as well as diversion and hold
airline: destination, alternate and 30 min at 1500 feet AAL

Q: CVR
A: CVR for multi-engine, turbine-powered, 2-pilots, seating 6 or more
CVR u/s max 90 days provided that FDR is working

Q: FDR
FDR for seating 10 or more, manufactured after Oct 11, 1991

Q: Squawk codes
A: VFR: 1200 at and below 12 500 MSL, 1400 above
IFR: 1000 below 18 000 MSL, 2000 at an above

Q: Very high pressure (above 31.00 inHg)
A: add 100 feet and 1/4 mile vis per each 0.1 inHg above 31.00

Q: PAPI and VASI eye-to-wheel height (EWH)
A: V1/P1 – 2-bar VASI for EWH up to 10 feet
V2/P2 – 2-bar VASI for EWH up to 25 feet
V3/P3 – 3-bar VASI for EWH up to 45 feet (wide-body uses 2 upper)
AVASI/APAPI only for up to 10 feet EWH

Flight Operations

Q: Calculate the time to critical point.
A: Critical point is an equal time point. Calculate ground speed and compare. In case of diversion, plot the solution and compute: https://skybrary.aero/articles/critical-point-cp
PNR: time = endurance * GSback / (GSout + GSback)
PNR OEI: distance = fuel on board / (SFFout + SFFback)
SFF = fuel burned per nm
CP (or ETP, or PET): distance = total distance * GSout / (GSout + GSback)

Q: Calculate SAR and SGR
A: SGR = Groundspeed / fuel burn;
SAR = TAS / fuel burn. Wind effect/factor can be given instead of just wind speeds.
Note: better altitude is the altitude with better SGR!

Q: What is dynamic hydroplaning
A: Dynamic hydroplaning develops at high-speeds during takeoffs or landings, but can persist to significantly slower speeds once it occurs. It does not begin unless some groundspeed is exceeded. Also can appear when we have puddles. It leaves no physical evidence on tyre or runway surface. Dynamic hydroplaning occurs when the groundspeed (in knots) is at least 8.73 times the square root of the tire pressure (in PSI) of the main tires.
Note: Gleim explanation

Q: What is viscous hydroplaning
A: Viscous hydroplaning occurs due to the viscous properties of water. Low tire pressure and low speeds, no standing water. Damp surface can the the cause

Q: Reverted rubber hydroplanning
A: Intense braking, steam can form and prevent contact with the runway

Q: Hydroplaning speed dependency of tire pressure
A: rotating tire: speed (kts) = 9 * √(tire pressure (psi))
non-rotating tire: speed (kts) = 7.7 * √(tire pressure (psi))

Q: A pilot on a VFR flight plan must revise ETA if entering the ADIZ when/where?
A: You must be within 20 nm and +/- 5 minutes of the point specified in your flight plan. If you will not meet these tolerances, revise your and point with an ATC Unit, FIC, FSS or CARS.

Q: What do vortex generators do?
A: They delay flow separation, energizing the boundary layer, which delays a stall and allows to operate at higher AoA.
Note: paper on boldmethod

Q: Decode a NOTAM
A: nice explanation

Q: NOTAM with APRX
A: At a time quoted in APRX the replacing/cancelling NOTAM must be issued
Note: NOTAM overview

Q: Decode a TAF, compare TAF with current METAR and say if the weather is moving faster/slower.
A: TAF explanation

Q: Transponder requirements in class C airspace
A: When operating in transponder airspace (all Canadian Class A, B, and C airspace, as well as some Class D and E airspace (CAR 601.03)), your aircraft must be equipped with a Mode C transponder (CAR 605.35).

Q: What does a machmeter do?
A: A machmeter is an instrument which provides an indication of the Mach number (M), which is the ratio between the aircraft true air speed (TAS) and the local speed of sound (LSS). The machmeter uses a pitot-static system to measure the mach number.

Q: Effective pitch
A: Actual distance the prop travels in one rotation

Q: In beta range, what controls the prop pitch?
A: The beta range is used for ground operations inclusive of slowing the aircraft after landing. Below flight idle, the power levers control the blade pitch directly through a mechanical linkage, usually accomplished by pulling the power levers backward over a gate mechanism (aft for decelerating on the runway after landing or for backing up).
Note: With the power lever(s) in the ground idle position, the blade pitch is such that the propeller produces its minimum level of thrust.

Q: How to control the prop in BETA?
A: Keywords: power lever, mechanical or hydromechanical linkage.

Q: What stops the prop from going into reverse while flying?
A: There is normally some kind of detent or gate that requires a deliberate movement or unlatching to move below flight idle. Mechanically the engine idle gates and the low pitch stops (or high pitch stops) are used to prevent the prop going into beta. They can be hydromechanical. The flight idle stop additionally prevents the prop control from going into revers should the power lever linkages break.

Q: You encounter freezing rain while flying at 4000 feet. What do you do?
A: There is a warm front approaching, so possibly climb.

Q: Compressor stall in a jet engine?
A: Caused by excessive angle of attack on the compressor blades.

Q: Engine hung start
A: The engine lights up normally, but the RPM rather than increasing to idling speed, remains at some lower speed

Q: What are compressor bleed valves are used for?
A: The bleed valve is designed to prevent surging by venting out extra pressure from the axial compressor (bleeding air from the compressor), so for avoiding compressor stall at startup or acceleration of a gas turbine engine.

Q: What is EPR?
A: Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR), in a jet engine, is the ratio of the turbine discharge pressure divided by the compressor inlet pressure.

Q: you are on a flight that is 2 hours including a climb of 20 minutes. You are given fuel burns for a climb, cruise, and a hold. You are night VFR. Calculate the total fuel required.
A: 20 min climb + 1h 40 min cruise + 45 min reserve (cruise). No holding here despite the question could trick you in it.

Q: The greatest difference between ground and slant distance for DME occurs when?
A: High altitude, short range. Extreme case: directly overhead.

Q: you are above your threshold crossing speed when you are landing. The best way to stop the aircraft as soon as possible is to?
A: Touchdown ASAP on the main wheels, use maximum braking (hopefully).
Note: something about reverse thrust, then nose gear down, then max braking and reverse thrust (still can’t figure out the fully correct answer)

Q: For flights above a certain altitude crew members need training on hypoxia. Which level?
A: Pilots and crewmembers of flights exceeding 25,000 feet MSL are required to complete ground training in high-altitude physiology, including hypoxia training

Q: Pilot at the controls must use oxygen mask
A: The aircraft is not equipped with quick-donning masks and is operated AT or ABOVE FL250

Q: Communication failure, ATC will clear the zone for:
A: 30 min

Q: Farthest distance over water without a life preserver
A: 50 NM

Q: Life rafts for a Transport Category aircraft
A: 400 NM or 120 min

Q: Journey log requirements
A: TBD

Q: How does airborne weather radar detect thunderstorms and lightning while you are in the cloud?
A: Probably it’s getting worse due to attenuation, but don’t know what TC wants in this question.

Q: How does the weather radar operate?
A: Return signal is based on water droplet size.

Q: How to scan thunderstorms with a weather radar
A: From the middle and then below

Q: Thunderstorm detection: is it harder to detect thunderstorms while in cloud with precipitation?
A: Yes, because of a signal attenuation.

Q: What aircraft configuration produces the worst vortices?
A: Heavy, slow moving aircraft in the clean configuration.

Q: Width of vortices and trail length
A: 2 wingspans, 10-15 NM

Q: Vortices sink rate
A: 300-500 fpm

Q: Who is responsible for wake turbulence separation?
A: The PIC has the final authority. ATC can suggest, and the PIC can request waiver.

Q: How to avoid wake turbulence on takeoff?
A: Get airborne before previous aircraft rotation, stay above its glide path.

Q: How to avoid wake turbulence on landing?
A: Go above the previous aircraft glide path, land beyond its touchdown point.

Q: Wake turbulence for radar environment
A: Heavy behind heavy: 4 nm
Medium behind heavy: 5 nm
Light behind heavy: 6 nm
Light behind medium: 4 nm

Q: Jet blast idle/takeoff
A: Jumbo: 600/1600 ft
Medium jet: 450/1200 ft
Small jet: 200/500 ft

Q: Altimeter settings: are you higher/lower and how much with different settings.
A: Standard pressure is 29.92. Each inch corresponds to 1000 feet: for example, with 28.92 airport setting and 29.92 on the subscale you’re 1000 feet higher.

Q: What conditions are causing whiteouts?
A: Whiteout is a weather condition that causes disorientation and low visibility by snow, overcast cloud and fog. Basically, the whiteout in aviation occurs when the pilots cannot see the visible horizon because of the terrain covered with snow in the white sky.
Note: The answer COULD be “overcast only” (from the feedback).

Q: Calculate TAS from IAS.
A: TAS = CAS * (1 + 0.01 * (Altitude) / 600 + 0.01 * (temp – ISA) / 5).

Q: Contamination: no pilot shall take off in conditions…
A: Unless the aircraft is inspected for contamination.

Q: Rain on a windshield
A: You seem higher and closer so you tend to fly lower

Q: True Altitude in mountain conditions, temperature drops sharply, what’s the danger?
A: True altitude can be much lower than the indicated altitude.

Q: V2, V1, Vr
A: V2 – takeoff safety speed; should have 35 ft over the obstacle; V2 > 1.1 Vmc; V2 > 1.2 Vs.
V1 – decision speed (or critical engine failure speed); V1 > 1.05 Vmc; V1 > 1.1 Vs.
Vr – rotation speed.

Q: What is the difference between Va, Vb and Vra?
A: Va – maneuvering speed, above it max controls deflection can overstress the aircraft
Vb is the the maximum speed at which gusts will not overstress the aircraft, when the Vra is the recommended turbulence penetration speed, and it is not greater than Vb and sufficiently less than VMO.

Q: Vmca
A: Minimum control speed after an engine failure, rearward Cg, gear up, flaps takeoff, prop windmilling

Q: Vs, Vs0, Vs1
A: Vs – gear up, flaps up, power off
Vs0 (stuff out) – gear down, flaps down
Vs1 (stuff in) – clean configuration

Q: Vref
A: 1.3 Vs0, 50 feet over the ground

Q: Define the “Balanced Field Length”.
A: We have the balanced field when our Take-off Distance Required
(TODR) equals our Accelerated Stop Distance Required (ASDR).
Note: The balanced field length is the shortest field length at which a balanced field takeoff can be performed. Factors affecting the balanced field length include: the mass of the aircraft – higher mass results in slower acceleration and higher takeoff speed.

Q: ASDA, TORA, TODA definitions.
A: ASDA = TORA + Stopway; TODA = TORA + Clearway.

Q: Full stop landing distance requirements in percents of landing distance available
A: 60% turbojet; 70% prop

Q: Wet runway for a turbojet
A: LDA 115% of landing distance required

Q: Overshooting in IMC or at night – what can happen?
A: Pilot tempted to lower nose and potentially can fly into terrain.

Q: When are you most likely to encounter CFIT?
A: When you get below DH or MDA.

Q: 3-bar VASIS.
A: The furthest one is for high cockpit aircraft (cockpit position is 25 feet (8 meters) or more above the extended landing gear).

Q: ETOPS.
A: 60 minutes of OEI

Q: LAHSO?
A: When given this clearance it is the pilots responsibility to hold short of the position given and the instruction must be read back. Must say if unable to comply! Must read back!

Q: Describe VOLMET.
A: The purpose of a VOLMET broadcast is to provide weather information to aircraft in flight.

Meteorology

Q: you are in the jetstream and the temperature is dropping. The best way to avoid turbulence is to?
A: Descend. Usually the width of jet streams are much larger than their height, so changing course will not help. And if the temperature is dropping, we’re probably flying from high to low temp, and if we climb we can reach tropopause

Q: Identify where jetstreams are most likely to occur
A: main jet streams are located near the altitude of the tropopause and are westerly winds. Polar jets – 9-12 km AMSL, subtropical jets 10-16 km AMSL.

Q: Pressure levels for different altitudes
A: 850 mb: FL50
700 mb: FL100
500 mb: FL180
400 mb: FL240
300 mb: FL300
200 mb: FL360
150 mb: FL450

Q: Canadian typical air masses
A: cA (winter)
mA (winter, summer)
mP (winter, summer)
mT (summer)

Q: Lapse rates
A: standard: 1.98°C per 1000 feet
DARL: 3°C per 1000 feet
SARL: 1.5°C per 1000 feet

Q: Question about reading the jet stream on an upper level chart. What height and what turbulence was associated with it.
A: Usually 200mb and 300mb charts are used. Maps using: this and this

Q: Warm frontolysis

Warm frontolysis

Q: Cold frontogenesis

Cold frontogenesis

Q: Celsius to fahrenheit
A: F = (°C × 9/5) + 32

Q: Read GFA.
A: Just read GFA.

Q: GFA altitudes
A: Between surface and 24 000 MSL

Q: GFA winds
A: 20 kts and greater

Q: Isotachs spaced closely together on 250 hpa chart you can expect?
A: Sufficient horizontal wind shear for the occurrence of CAT.

Q: Calculate true wind velocity/direction with given magnetic heading, speed, magnetic track and the variation.
A: E6B, or basic geometry:
Crosswind velocity = √(TAS2 – GS2)
Headwind velocity = TAS * sin(angle between heading and track)

Q: When is your True Altitude lower than Indicated?
A: Cold (low) temp, low pressure.

Q: What happens when precipitation falls onto a cold soaked wing?
A: I believe that the ice will accumulate even more up to clear ice.

Q: Clear ice rather than rime ice is most likely to occur in:
A: CB, slowly freezing large water droplets.

Q: Rime ice is most likely to occur:
A: Small droplets, freezing almost instantly, low rate of catch.

Q: Ice accumulation of medium to coarse sandpaper decrease lift by __% and increase drag by __%
A: lift 30; drag 40

Q: Few millimeters of ice can increase stall speed by
A: 20%

Q: Deicing fluids: type II and IV fluids are bad for which types of aircraft?
A: A/C with a rotation speed <100 kts since their shear speed is about 100 kts (the speed when they wipe off the critical surfaces)
Note:
type I is for ice removal (usually water/glycol mix)
type II is more viscous with about 100 kts shear speed
type III has longer holdover time than type I but shorter than type II
type IV is basically type II with much longer holdover time

Q: Holdover time begin and end
A: Begins at the start of final fluid application and ends when the fluid is no longer effective

Q: Which part of an airplane do you de-ice first?
A: As a guideline, start at the top and work down, but work symmetrically. Some aircraft require specific control surface settings for deicing.

Q: You are flying along in -20 temperatutre, and you land at an airport for a short stop that has a temp of +10 and a dewpoint of +9. What can occur?
A: Cold soaking phenomenon, frost on the wings. The fuel can be still cold, and the water in contact with a wing will freeze to the wing surfaces.

Q: Windshear recovery
A: TBD

Q: Windshear effects
A: Increasing headwind – increasing airspeed and performance

Q: How does the GPS calculate position?
A: The computation is based on the triangulation principle. Multiple satellites beam signals at the speed of light toward Earth, and your device receives the signals at slightly different times, based on how far away each satellite is from your location. These times can be used to calculate the differences in distance from each satellite to determine your location on Earth.

Q: GPS standalone and Overlay approaches
A: Overlay can be flown even if the underlying navaid is inoperative

Q: GPS accuracy, availability and integrity
A: TBD

Q: Seatbelts
A: At least one pilot at all times; all others during take-off and landing and whenever PIC directs it

Q: Tailplane stalls
A: TBD

Q: Cold temp corrections. What altitudes do you adjust? Procedure turn etc. When don’t you adjust?
A: definitely DA/MDA, MEA, MOCA. Do NOT adjust vectors

Q: TCAS resolutions
A: Comply immediately, advice ATC.

Q: TCAS principles
A: based on transponder signal

Q: Difference and limitations of VOR, DME and TACAN
А: VOR – line of sight, VHF (108.00-117.95 MHz);
VORTACazimuth from VOR, distance from TACAN
DME – A typical DME ground-based responder beacon has a limit of 2700 interrogations per second (pulse pairs per second – pps). Thus it can provide distance information for up to 100 aircraft at a time—95% of transmissions for aircraft in tracking mode (typically 25 pps) and 5% in search mode (typically 150 pps);
TACAN is the military version of DME. In addition to distance measurement (which works identically to a DME station), it also enables an aircraft to determine the azimuth between the aircraft and ground station.

Aircraft General Knowledge – Engines, Propellers, Aircraft Systems

Q: EPR
A: Turbine out pressure to inlet pressure

Q: Bypass ratio
A: Mass flow through bypass to the mass flow through the core

Human Performance (Human Factors)

Q: TUC
A: FL300: 45-75 sec
FL400: 15-30 sec

Q: CRM is good because?
A: It allows to use input from all the crew members and refers to the effective use of all resources available to the pilot.

Q: An effective captain does…
A: recognizes reduced effectiveness of crew under stress; takes input from all crew members; something else.

Q: If you find yourself strongly disagree with the Captain, how do you approach the situation?
A: Overcome shyness to question, ask for clarification, and state your viewpoint.

Q: How do you go over the checklist in the cockpit?
A: I believe that have it in hand, verbalize each item and both pilots should participate in the process.

Q: When reading checklist and you’re interrupted, the best way to avoid missing items is:
A: Go over the checklist once more from the beginning.

Performance

Q: Performance, calculate max allowable takeoff weight using accelerate-go chart.
A: Just use the chart. I will make a separate page for that sort of problem later.

Weight and Balance (Mass and Balance)

Q: W&B, calculate weight to move for moving CG to some distance.
A: (Weight of aircraft) / (Weight to move) = (Weight moving dist) / (CG moving dist)

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Milestones

04/09/2017: My First Flight
04/25/2017: EASA PPL written exam (6 exams passed)
05/21/2017: Radio Operator Certificate (Europe VFR)
05/22/2017: EASA PPL written exam (all passed)
05/26/2017: The First Solo!
05/28/2017: Solo cross-country >270 km
05/31/2017: EASA PPL check-ride
07/22/2017: EASA IFR English
08/03/2017: 100 hours TT
12/04/2017: The first IFR flight
12/28/2017: FAA IR written
02/16/2018: FAA IR check-ride
05/28/2018: FAA Tailwheel endorsement
06/04/2018: FAA CPL long cross-country
06/07/2018: FAA CPL written
07/16/2018: FAA CPL check-ride
07/28/2018: FAA CPL ME rating
08/03/2018: FAA HP endorsement
06/03/2019: EASA ATPL theory (6/14)
07/03/2019: EASA ATPL theory (11/14)
07/15/2019: FAA IR IPC
07/18/2019: FAA CPL SES rating
08/07/2019: EASA ATPL theory (done)
10/10/2019: EASA NVFR
10/13/2019: EASA IR/PBN SE
11/19/2019: Solo XC > 540 km
12/06/2019: EASA CPL
12/10/2019: EASA AMEL
02/20/2020: Cessna 210 endorsement
08/30/2021: FAVT validation
05/27/2022: TCCA CPL/IR written
05/31/2022: Radio Operator Certificate Canada